Month: September 2020

Procedure to Verify and Update Teachers Service Information in EEDS

Last chance to make corrections in EEDS

Department of Education Karnataka has released Circular providing option to verify and Update the following Service details of Teachers Working in Government Primary and High Schools in EEDS (Edit Employee Details) Software through DDO Login within Specified dates,

Division Last Date
Bangalore 09.12.2020
Mysore 09.12.2020
Belagavi 10.12.2020
Kalaburgi 11.12.2020

Failing to do so will initiate strict action, For more details CLICK HERE

USER MANUALS

Add Employee Details CLICK HERE
Transfer In – Out CLICK HERE
Edit Employee Details CLICK HERE
Exit Employee CLICK HERE

Department of Education Karnataka has released Circular extending last date to to verify and Update the following Service details of Teachers Working in Government Primary and High Schools in EEDS (Edit Employee Details) Software in School Login using SATS User ID and Password, Last date is extended till 29.10.2020, for more details CLICK HERE, For the Circular and User Manual for the District level vacancy verification taht is to be done within 23.10.2020 CLICK HERE

IMPORTANT FORMATS

Basic Details CLICK HERE
Priority / Exemption Details CLICK HERE
Qualification Details CLICK HERE
Department Exam Details CLICK HERE
Service Details CLICK HERE

Details to be Updated are

BASIC DETAILS 

In Edit Employees Software the Option is Given to make Correction in details like Gender, Religion, Social Category, Address, Phone Number, Email Id, Marital status, Spouse Name, Spouse Working details (NOTE : Edit Option is not available to make any changes in Employee Name, Date of Birth and KGID Number)

WORKING DETAILS 

In Edit Employees Software the Option is Given to make Correction in details like Present Pay Scale, Basic Pay, Declaration of Probationary period date and Order, Time Bond Orders

PRIORITY / EXEMPTION DETAILS 

In Edit Employees Software the Option is Given to make Correction in following details by clicking YES or No for following options

Teacher/Spouse/Children from terminal illness or serious ailments for which treatment is not available within the taluka where teacher is working

Teacher/Spouse/Children with bench mark disability

Widow or Widower or a divorcee teacher with dependent children (below the age of 12 yrs)

Teacher with spouse being a working soldier or retired or permanently disable or deceased soldier of Indian Defence Forces or Para-Military Forces

Teacher with spouse working with State or Central Government or aided educational institution

Pregnant Teacher or a female teacher with a child less than one year

QUALIFICATION DETAILS 

In Edit Employees Software the Option is Given to make Correction in details of Qualification in SSLC / PUC / Degree / Professional Courses / PG

To Details to be entered for SSLC / PUC / Degree are Languages Studied, Core Subjects, Medium of Instruction, whereas for Professional Courses need to fill Methodology studied and for PG should enter details of Course and Subject studied 

DEPARTMENT EXAM DETAILS 

In Edit Employees Software the Option is Given to make Correction in details like Department Exam Subjects, Year of Passing, Register Number, Section I / II, Certificate Number

SERVICE DETAILS

In Edit Employees Software the Option is Given to make Correction in details like Designation, Zone, Service Category, Service dates (School Wise), Mode of Posting

EEDS SOFTWARE

PROCEDURE TO LOGIN TO EDIT DETAILS

Step 1 : CLICK HERE

amk

Step 2 : Select School

Step 3 : Enter SATS User ID

Step 4: Enter SATS Password

Step 5 : Enter captcha Shown

Step 6 : Press LOGIN

Note 

The Dialog box ‘EMPLOYEE REGISTRATION’ with Details of List of Employees like Employee Name, Designation, KGID Number, Email Id will get open, CLICK  on EDIT EMPLOYEES DETAILS

PROCEDURE TO EDIT EMPLOYEE DETAILS

CLICK on KGID Number of Employee whose details you want to Edit (Note : A Dialog Box UPDATE EMPLOYEE DETAILS will open that has 6 sections like Basic Details, Working Details, Priority / Exemption details, Qualification Details, Department Exam details, Service Details)

AMK

Step 1 : CLICK on BASIC Details 

Step 2 : Make Correction to the Basic details of Employees if required and Press UPDATE 

Step 3 : CLICK on Working Details 

Step 4 : Make Correction to the Working details of Employees if required and Press UPDATE 

Step 5 : CLICK on Priority / Exemption Details

Step 6 : Click on YES or NO Radio button 

Step 7 : CLICK on Update

Step 8 : CLICK on Qualification Details

Step 9 : Select the Qualification in Drop down button, Fill the details and Press ADD one after another to Enter details of your SSLC / PUC / Degree/ Professional / PG

Step 10 : CLICK on Department Exam Details

Step 11 : Select the Subject in Drop down button, Fill the details and Press ADD one after another to Enter details of all Subjects of Department Exam

Step 12 : CLICK on Service Details 

Step 13 : Click on Drop down button and Enter details of Schools were you have earlier worked in your service till the details of Present School are added, after entry of details of 1 Working Place Press ADD button

NOTE

APPLICATION STATUS : Employee can check the status of Application by Entering application Number of KGID number by CLICK on Application Status in EEDS Software Dialog Box

IMPORTANT DOCUMENTS 

Circular CLICK HERE
User Manual CLICK HERE

CDP Practice Papers & Mock Exams of KARTET 2020

AMK

KARTET 2019 Results announced 

KARTET 2019 Examination results have been announced by the Department of Education, to check the results and Download KARTET Certificate  CLICK HERE

RE REVISED KEY ANSWERS 

KARTET 2019 Exam Re – Revised Final Key answers of Paper 2 (CDP / Social Science) are released by Department of Education, to check key answers CLICK HERE

FINAL KEY ANSWERS 

KARTET 2019 Exam was held successfully today (4th October 2020) across the state, the Revised Final Key answers of Paper 1 & Paper 2 are released by Department of Education, the objections to Key Answers can be filed within 21st October 2020 (5.30 PM), For complete instructions to candidates CLICK HERE,

Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
TET Certificate Valid for Lifetime

The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has  approved the extension of Teachers Eligibility Test (TET) Validity Certificate instead of 7 years to Lifetime,

It a big relief to all the candidates who write Exam every year to gain Eligibility in Teachers Eligibility Test that’s  conducted in State and Central level, the  decision was taken in the 50th meeting of the General Body of NCTE held on 29th September 2020,

According to the minutes of the NCTE General Body Meeting being circulated on 13th October, the council has approved extending the validity of TET certificate from seven years to life time and its provision will have prospective effect, for more details CLICK HERE

OBJECTIONS for KEY ANSWERS 

KARTET 2020 Exam was held successfully today (4th October 2020) across the state, the Provisional Key answers of Paper 1 & Paper 2 are released by Department of Education, the objections to Key Answers can be filed within 21st October 2020 (5.30 PM), Instructions to file objections CLICK HERE and to file objections CLICK HERE

PROVISIONAL KEY ANSWERS 

KARTET 2020 Exam was held successfully today (4th October 2020) across the state, the Provisional Key answers of Paper 1 & Paper 2 are released by Department of Education, the objections to Key Answers can be filed within 21st October 2020 (5.30 PM), For complete instructions to candidates CLICK HERE,

Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE

TENTATIVE KEY ANSWERS 

KARTET 2020 Exam was held successfully today (4th October 2020) across the state, the tentative Key answers of Paper 1 & Paper 2 prepared by Margadarshi Study circle, Koppala is published for reference, to download 

Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 (Soc) CLICK HERE
Paper 2 (M & S) CLICK HERE

KARTET CENTRES 

Department of Education, Karnataka has released KARTET 2019 Centre wise Details, The Exam is Schedule to be held tomorrow (4th October 2020), to check details CLICK HERE

EXAM HALL TECHNIQUES

KARTET 2020 Exams are Scheduled to be held TOMORROW (4th October 2020) across the state for Paper 1 (9.30AM) and Paper 2 (2.00PM), It’s very important that all Candidates follow the Instructions given below

DO’S

  • Without forget Carry Exam Admit Card, if not yet downloaded, then CLICK HERE and download copy now (NOTE : Admit cards of Students who had requested for change in Exam centres been uploaded)
  • Wear Mask and Carry water bottle (if needed)
  • Use only Black / Blue ball point pen to Shade in OMR Sheet
  • Be 1 hour early at Exam centre as Screening is mandatory
  • Read all the instruction before answering the Paper
  • Ensure that your Question Booklet Number and OMR Answer sheet Number are same
  • In Serial No 11 in OMR Sheet fill your Application Number
  • Plan Time for Each Subject (as got different sections)
  • Attempt first subject which you find Easy
  • Attempt all questions (As there is NO NEGATIVE Markings)
  • Don’t forget to hand over OMR sheet to Room invigilator
  • Carry your OMR sheet CARBONLESS copy only
  • Without forget sign in the Nominal roll provided by Room Invigilator

DONT’S

  • Don’t leave any question unanswered
  • Don’t use Whitener or White Fluid
  • Don’t carry any textual materials, Electronic Gadgets in Exam Hall
  • Don’t leave Exam hall without handing over your OMR Sheet to Room Invigilator

EXAM HALL TIPS

  • Don’t Panic
  • Be confident in your Preparations
  • Before going to Exam Hall see that you carry all Exam related belongings
  • Manage time judiciously
  • Answer all Questions
  • Before 1 hour stop revising content
  • Drink water before get inside exam hall (as it relieves stress)
  • Answer first question you know, don’t waste time on tough part
  • Read question clearly and understand what been asked
  • Believe in your ability, you can do it

DAILY PRACTICE PAPERS

Get Download Everyday KARTET 2020 Practice Papers, Attempt them and verify your Performance using the Key Answers

NOTE : Today’s Key Answers are updated, BEST OF LUCK (KM – Kannada Medium)

3rd October 2020
Lang II English CLICK HERE
Mathematics CLICK HERE
Social CLICK HERE
Science CLICK HERE
CDP CLICK HERE
Key Answers CLICK HERE
2nd October 2020
Social (KM) CLICK HERE
Key Answers CLICK HERE
1st October 2020
EVS (KM) CLICK HERE
Science CLICK HERE
Key Answers CLICK HERE
30th September 2020
CDP (KM) CLICK HERE
Lang I Kannada CLICK HERE
Lang II English CLICK HERE
Key Answers CLICK HERE
29th September 2020
CDP CLICK HERE
Key Answers CLICK HERE
28th September 2020
Social Science CLICK HERE
Key Answers CLICK HERE

CHANGE OF EXAM CENTRE

Department of Education, Karnataka has released Circular regarding option for candidates to get change Exam center by 2nd October 2020, for more details CLICK HERE

METHODOLOGY OF TEACHING

English (1) CLICK HERE
English (2) CLICK HERE
Mathematics CLICK HERE
Science CLICK HERE
Social Science CLICK HERE
EVS (1) CLICK HERE
EVS (2) CLICK HERE
CDP CLICK HERE

SCIENCE (30 Marks)

Science is the Subject in Paper 2 for the Students who are aspirants for Science Teachers, It carries weightage of 30 marks and its very important that you prepare for this subject and Score Good Marks.

MOCK EXAMS

As per the Schedule announced, the KARTET 2020 Examination will be held on 4th October 2020, Here is an opportunity to Analyse your Preparations Language Pedagogy by attending MOCK Exams based on Most Likely Question of Science and Pedagogy that may appear in the upcoming Examinations and Reorganise your studies to Score good marks (Note : Each Mock Exam consists of 30 Questions on Science Content and Pedagogy, attempt all to analyse your preparations)

MOCK EXAM 1

KARTET / CTET

amk

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 

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1 / 30

Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the magnetic field produced by a current- carrying wire?

 

2 / 30

A current flows in a wire running between the S and N poles of a magnet lying horizontally as shown in the figure below:

                                   

The force on the wire due to the magnet is directed

3 / 30

The frequency of electricity produced by DC generator is equal to

4 / 30

An electric motor is a device which transforms

5 / 30

The shape of the magnetic field lines produced by a current carrying conductor are

6 / 30

A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer forming a loop and a magnet is:

A: Held stationary

B: Moved away along its axis

C: Moved towards along its axis

There will be a induced current in

7 / 30

The force exerted on a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field is zero when the angle between wire and the direction of magnetic field is

8 / 30

A current carrying conductor is held in exactly vertical direction. In order to produce a clockwise magnetic field around the conductor, the current should be passed in the conductor

9 / 30

A soft iron bar is inserted inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid

10 / 30

A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as shown in figure. The direction of magnetic field at a point will be north to south.

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current NCERT Exemplar Problems

 

11 / 30

Choose the incorrect statement.

12 / 30

In the arrangement shown in figure, there are two coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod. Initially, the key is not inserted. Then the key is inserted and later removed. Then

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current MCQs

 

13 / 30

Commercial electric motors do not use

14 / 30

A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in figure. In the field an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton experience.

Electron Proton Movement in Magnetic Field Lines

15 / 30

For a current in a long straight solenoid N and S-poles are created at the two ends. Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is

16 / 30

A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current when the key is ON. The current as seen from points and (in the plane of paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti-clockwise and clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines point from to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face close to

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current NCERT Exemplar Problems

 

17 / 30

If the key in the arrangement as shown below is taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current MCQs

 

18 / 30

Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic lines of field

19 / 30

In electric motor, to make the coil rotating continuously in the same direction, current is reversed in the coil after every half rotation by a device called

20 / 30

Direction of rotation of a coil in electric motor is determined by

21 / 30

When current is parallel to magnetic field, then force experience by the current carrying conductor placed in uniform magnetic field is

22 / 30

The factors on which one magnetic field strength produced by current carrying solenoids depends are

23 / 30

The nature of magnetic field line passing through the centre of current carrying circular loop is

24 / 30

The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting wire is

25 / 30

Which of the following statement is not correct about the magnetic field?

26 / 30

Relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the magnet is shown by the

27 / 30

Magnetic effect of current was discovered by

28 / 30

The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or overloading is

29 / 30

To convert an AC generator into DC generator

30 / 30

The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is

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MOCK EXAM 2

KARTET / CTET

amk

Control & Co - ordination

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1 / 30

The movement of a plant part in response to the force of attraction exerted by the earth is called

2 / 30

Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from

3 / 30

The dramatic changes in body features associated with puberty are mainly because of the secretions of

4 / 30

A doctor advised a person to take injection of insulin because his

5 / 30

Which of the following control and regulate the life process?

6 / 30

Which of the following controls the involuntary actions in the body?

7 / 30

Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which of the following hormone?

8 / 30

The number of pairs of nerves which arises from the spinal cord are

9 / 30

Dandelion flowers open the petals in bright light during the daytime but close the petals in dark at night. This response of dandelion flowers to light is called

10 / 30

A growing seedling is kept in a dark room. A burning lamp is placed near to it for a few days. The top part of seedling bends towards the burning candle. This is an example of

11 / 30

The stimulus in the process of thigmotropism is

12 / 30

The growth of tendrils in pea plants is due to the

13 / 30

The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to

14 / 30

The movement of shoot towards light is

15 / 30

Spinal cord originates from

16 / 30

Posture and balance of the body is controlled by

17 / 30

Which of the following statements are true about the brain?

(i) The main thinking part of brain is hind brain.

(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc., are located in fore brain.

(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, blood pressure are controlled by the medulla in the hind brain.

(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body.

18 / 30

Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Sudden action in response to something in the environment is caller reflex action

(ii) Sensory neurons carry signals from spinal cord to muscles.

(iii) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to spinal cord.

(iv) The path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to muscle or a gland is called reflex arc.

19 / 30

Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?

20 / 30

In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in

21 / 30

In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from

22 / 30

Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?

23 / 30

In humans, the life processes are controlled and regulated by

24 / 30

Junction between two neurons is called

25 / 30

Which of the following endocrine glands is unpaired?

26 / 30

The hormone which increase the fertility in males is called

27 / 30

Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of secretion of

28 / 30

Dwarfism results due to

29 / 30

Which statement is not true about thyroxin?

30 / 30

When a person is suffering from severe cold, he or she cannot

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MOCK EXAM 3

KARTET / CTET

amk

Light - Reflection & Refraction

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1 / 30

A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular slab for three different values of angle of incidence (∠i ) namely 30o, 45o and 60o. He extends the direction of incident ray by a dotted line and measures the perpendicular distance ‘l’ between the extended incident ray and the emergent ray.He will observe that

2 / 30

Four students A, B, C and D performed the experiment to determine the focal length of a concave mirror by obtaining the image of a distant tree on a screen. They measured the distances between the screen and the mirror as shown in the diagrams given, The correct way to measure accurate focal length of the mirror is

Question Image

3 / 30

A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular slab, For measuring the angle of incidence, he must position the protractor in the manner shown in the figure

Question Image

4 / 30

While performing an experiment on determination of focal length of a convex lens, four students obtained the image of the same distant tree on the screen as given figure, Which diagram shows the formation of image correctly?

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5 / 30

 A student does the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence. He can get a correct measure of the angle of incidence and the angle of emergence by following the labelling indicated in figure

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6 / 30

If an object is placed 21 cm from a converging lens, the image formed is slightly smaller than the object. If the object is placed at a distance of 19 cm from the lens, the image formed is slightly larger than the object. The approximate focal length of the lens is

7 / 30

 Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is incident on it?

8 / 30

A lens of focal length 12 cm forms an erect image, three times the size of the object. The distance between the object and image is

9 / 30

A ray of light passes from a medium X to another medium Y. No refraction of light occurs if the ray of light hits the boundary of medium Y at an angle of

10 / 30

A ray of light is travelling in a direction perpendicular to the boundary of a parallel glass slab. The ray of light:

11 / 30

Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C and D respectively as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?

Question Image

12 / 30

 A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in the figure. The refractive index of medium B relative to A will be

Question Image

13 / 30

Under which of the following conditions, a concave mirror can form an image larger than the actual object?

14 / 30

A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is

15 / 30

The nature of the image formed by concave mirror when the object is placed between the focus (F) and centre of curvature (C) of the mirror observed by us is

16 / 30

An object at a distance of + 15 cm is slowly moved towards the pole of a convex mirror. The image will get

17 / 30

Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?

18 / 30

An object is placed at a distance of 0.25 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the object and image will be

19 / 30

In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly diminished and point sized?

20 / 30

A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the order of combinations for the magic mirror from the top

21 / 30

Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a lens shown in figure?

Question Image

22 / 30

Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure?

Question Image

23 / 30

You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media, a ray of light incident obliquely at some angle would bend the most

24 / 30

 The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced by four students shown as A, B, C and D in the figure. Which one of them is correct?

Question Image

25 / 30

 The laws of reflection hold good for

26 / 30

In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles, the bulb is placed

27 / 30

A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using

28 / 30

A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image will form at

29 / 30

You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium in which the light will travel fastest is

30 / 30

If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times the size of face, focal length of the mirror would be

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MOCK EXAM 4

KARTET / CTET

amk

Metals & Non Metals

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1 / 30

Which of the following property is generally not shown by metals?

2 / 30

An element X is soft and can be cut with the help of a knife. It is very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in the air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following

3 / 30

Which of the following alloys contains a non-metal as one of its constituents?

4 / 30

Galvanisation is a method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of

5 / 30

Which of the following pairs of reactants will go undergo a displacement reaction?

6 / 30

Which among the following is the most abundant metal found in the earth’s crust?

7 / 30

Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?

8 / 30

An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be

9 / 30

Which of the following represent the correct order of decreasing reactivity?

10 / 30

In the given reaction, Al2O+ NaOH   →  ……X……   +  H2O, What is element X?

11 / 30

In electrolytic refining, the cathode is made up of

12 / 30

Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the following acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg)?

13 / 30

What happens when calcium is treated with water?

(i)  It does not react with water.

(ii) It reacts violently with water.

(iii) It reacts less violently with water.

(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium.

14 / 30

Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with steam?

15 / 30

Which one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot water?

16 / 30

Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are responsible for the same?

(i) Good thermal conductivity

(ii) Good electrical conductivity

(iii) Ductility

(iv) High melting point

17 / 30

The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as

18 / 30

Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material, generally used is

19 / 30

Generally non-metals are non-conductors of electricity. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?

20 / 30

Although metals form basic oxides, which of the following metals form an amphoteric oxide?

21 / 30

The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X — 2, 8: Y — 2, 8, 7 and Z — 2, 8, 2. Which of the following is correct?

22 / 30

Reaction between X and Y forms compound Z. X loses electron and y gains electron. Which of the following properties is not shown by Z?

23 / 30

Which among the following alloys contain mercury as one of its constituents?

24 / 30

Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?

25 / 30

Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents?

26 / 30

 An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following.

27 / 30

During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets

28 / 30

An electrolytic cell consists of

(i) Positively charged cathode

(ii) Negatively charged anode

(iii) Positively charged anode

(iv) Negatively charged cathode

29 / 30

2 mL each of conc. HCl, HNO3, and a mixture of conc. HCl. and conc. HNO3, in the ratio of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes labeled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test tube C. The metal could be

30 / 30

Which one of the following four metals would be displaced from the solution of its salts by other three metals?

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MOCK EXAM 5

KARTET / CTET

amk

Carbon & its Compounds

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1 / 30

Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?

2 / 30

The property of self-linkage among identical atoms to form long chain compounds is known as

3 / 30

Which of the following compounds of carbon does not consist of ions?

4 / 30

The I.U.P.A.C name of CH3CH2CH=CH2 is?

5 / 30

Cation is formed when

6 / 30

Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an example of

7 / 30

In the following reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as:

alkaline KMnO4 as oxidising agent

8 / 30

Buckminsterfullerene is an allotropic form of

9 / 30

A molecule of ammonia (NH3) has

10 / 30

Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic acids because

(i) Mineral acids are completely ionised.

(ii) Carboxylic acids are completely ionised.

(iii) Mineral acids are partially ionised.

(iv) Carboxylic acids are partially ionised

11 / 30

Vinegar is a solution of

12 / 30

Ethanol reacts with sodium and forms two products. These are

13 / 30

Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has

14 / 30

In the soap micelles

15 / 30

Chlorine reacts with saturated hydrocarbons at room temperature in the

16 / 30

Identify the unsaturated compounds from the following.

(i) Propane

(ii) Propene

(iii) Propyne

(iv) Chloropropane

17 / 30

The soap molecule has a

18 / 30

 In which of the following compounds -OH is the functional group?

19 / 30

 Which of the following statements about graphite and diamond is true?

20 / 30

 Solubility of alcohol in water is due to

21 / 30

A functional group mainly determines the

22 / 30

 —CHO represents the functional group

23 / 30

 In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms to form

24 / 30

The first member of the alkyne homologous series is

25 / 30

 Addition reactions are undergone by

26 / 30

Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?

27 / 30

Name the functional group present in CH3COCH3

28 / 30

Ethanol on complete oxidation gives

29 / 30

The number of isomers of pentane is

30 / 30

C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of

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MOCK EXAM 6

KARTET / CTET

amk

Management of Natural Resources

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1 / 30

Which among the statements given below is incorrect?

2 / 30

Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. Pick those that correctly describe the concept of biodiversity

i. Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and fauna present in an area

ii. Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area

iii. Biodiversity is greater in a forest

iv. Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in an area

Choose the correct option from the following

3 / 30

In our country, there are attempts to increase the height of several existing dams like Tehri and Almati dams across the Narmada. Choose the correct statements among the following that are a consequence of raising the height of dams

i. Terrestrial flora and fauna of the area is destroyed completely

ii. Dislocation of people and domestic animals living in the area

iii. Valuable agricultural land may be permanently lost

iv. It will generate permanent employment for people

Choose the correct option from the following

4 / 30

Which among the following is a major programme that was started to replenish the damaged forests?

5 / 30

Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on river

6 / 30

Who started chipko Movement?

7 / 30

Among the following choose the correct option which includes acts related to the three R's strategy which can be useful for conserving our natural resources?

8 / 30

 Which among the following factors help in confirming the contamination of river water?

i. Measurement of pH of river water

ii. Presence of chlorine in river water

iii. Existence of diverse life forms in river water

iv. Presence of coliform bacteria in river water

Choose the correct option from the following

9 / 30

Government launched the ‘Ganga Action Plan’ (GAP) project in 1985. The main purpose of this project was to

10 / 30

 Which of the following does not lead to the depletion of groundwater?

11 / 30

Which among the following is an eco-friendly activity?

12 / 30

The quality of environment can be improved by-

13 / 30

Which among the following was a message conveyed by the ‘Chipko Movement’?

14 / 30

Which of the following activities will prove to be effective in preventing floods?

i. Removing the topsoil

ii. Afforestation

iii. Construction of dams

iv. Cutting of trees

Choose the correct option from the following:

15 / 30

Which of the following is/ are not the consequence/consequences of building high-rise dams?

i. Loss of biodiversity

ii. Depletion of the natural habitats of wild animals

Soil erosion leading to the infertility of land

iv. Fall in the groundwater level

Choose the correct option from the following:

16 / 30

A successful forest conservation strategy should involve

17 / 30

 In our country, vast tracts of forests are cleared and a single species of plant is cultivated. This practice promotes

18 / 30

 The pH range most conducive for life of freshwater plants and animals is

19 / 30

The pH of water sample collected from a river was found to be acidic in the range of 3.5-4.5, on the banks of the river were several factories that were discharging effluents into the river. The effluents of which one of the following factories is the most likely cause for lowering the pH of river water?

20 / 30

The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is

21 / 30

The most appropriate definition of a natural resource is that it is a substance/commodity that is

22 / 30

The most rapidly dwindling natural resource in the world is

23 / 30

From the list given below pick the item that is not a natural resource

24 / 30

Which gas is formed, when fossil fuels are burnt in insufficient air (oxygen)?

25 / 30

Environment Day celebrated on

26 / 30

Surangams are the age-old concept of water harvesting in

27 / 30

Which of the following is the age old concept of water harvesting system in Madhya Pradesh ?

28 / 30

Which of the following canals brought about greenery in Rajasthan ?

29 / 30

Which of the following community in Rajasthan has a religious tenet of conservation of forest and wildlife ?

30 / 30

Which one of the following is an example of renewable resource ?

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MOCK EXAM 7

KARTET / CTET

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Our Environment

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1 / 30

Global warming is a phenomenon related to

2 / 30

Which of the following substances will not be converted to compost when added in a composting pit?

3 / 30

What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain given below?

Grass → Deer → Tiger

4 / 30

The substance which is chiefly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer is

5 / 30

Which of the following radiations is responsible for the conversion of atmospheric oxygen to ozone?

6 / 30

If 100 J energy is available at the producer level in a food chain then the energy available to the secondary consumer will be

7 / 30

Every food chain in the ecosystem begins with………. which are the original source of food

8 / 30

Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?

(i) Grass, lion, rabbit, wolf

(ii) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper

(iii) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger

(iv) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper

9 / 30

Which of the statement is incorrect?

10 / 30

Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

11 / 30

In the following groups of materials, which group(s) contains only non-biodegradable items?

(i) Wood, paper, leather

(ii) Polythene, detergent, PVC

(iii) Plastic, detergent, grass

(iv) Plastic, Bakelite, DDT

12 / 30

Excessive exposure of humans to UV-rays results in

(i) damage to immune system

(ii) damage to lungs

(iii) skin cancer

(iv) peptic ulcers

13 / 30

Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always

14 / 30

Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level constitute the

15 / 30

In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of

16 / 30

Depletion of ozone is mainly due to

17 / 30

In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?

Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

18 / 30

An ecosystem includes

19 / 30

 In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by

20 / 30

Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

21 / 30

Acid rain is caused by the oxides of

22 / 30

Which of the two in the following sets belong to the same trophic level?

23 / 30

The depletion of the ozone layer causes

24 / 30

First link in any food chain is usually green plants because

25 / 30

Trophic level in an ecosystem represents

26 / 30

Which of the following is biodegradable?